Confirmed, all categories have non-negative amounts in the "Available" column.
Why does making a Credit Card payment result in funds in "Ready to Assign"?
I've watched the Nick True video that came highly recommended in a bunch of Reddit results (e.g. here), but I still don't understand what's going on.
- Have all funds assigned, so that "Ready To Assign" is at zero.
- Approve a(n automatically imported) transfer from my checking account to my credit card account (see screenshot). Note that it is registered as an inter-account Payment and not as a regular expense.
- Budget view shows an equivalent amount of money "Ready To Assign".
And those people are Americans.
Thanks for the apology! It can be difficult to convey tone over text.
You may be surprised to hear that lots of people actually believe the position you were sarcastically presenting! Glad you're not one of them.
Your cynicism is not only unhelpful but also inaccurate.
it's already in use for mm/dd/yyyy
No, it's already in use for dd/mm/yyyy. When the majority of the world sees slashes (with the four-digit year at the end), they expect that. Americans are the ones making things ambiguous.