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  • It's not a separate argument, though.

    It absolutely is. I have not argued that piracy shouldn't exist nor have I made any argument about how much goods and/or services should cost. Both of those things are irrelevant to the point that I made and are distinctly different from the argument I made. The cost of something doesn't determine whether piracy is justified and my argument isn't whether piracy can or should be justified.

    If you are the victim of copyright infringement, you've only lost the potential sale.

    This is not true. While the loss would not be equal to a physical good, claiming nothing is lost assumes that people's time/effort/labor have no value and are free. They are not.

    The two ideas are distinctly different. You claim they are the same. They are not. You're on the cusp of recognising this.

    I do not claim they are the same. I already recognize they are different. You need to recognize that those are merely legal terms to differentiate how the legal system treats them. I am not arguing anything about the legality of the two nor am I arguing anything about copyright infringement. I am only talking about ingesting/consuming something without paying for it, regardless of how the law treats it (and that's not even considering that laws are different depending on where they are defined).

    • It absolutely is. I have not argued that piracy shouldn’t exist nor have I made any argument about how much goods and/or services should cost.

      No, you've argued that piracy and theft are the same thing. I've explained how they are not. They are distinctly different.

      This is not true. While the loss would not be equal to a physical good, claiming nothing is lost assumes that people’s time/effort/labor have no value and are free. They are not.

      That isn't a loss related to piracy. That's something that happened regardless of whether or not piracy had occurred.

      You are claiming that a potential revenue is akin to a loss. That is a flasehood.

      I do not claim they are the same. I already recognize they are different.

      You haven't though. You keep saying piracy is theft. Theft has a very clear definition - not just a legal definition, but a definition that has been around for far longer than you or I have been alive.

      If, 500 years ago, a monk picked up a book and copied it, he would not be accused of theft. He's not paying the author - regardless of how recently the book was written - but he is diluting the author's work and their ability to sell it by producing his copy or copies. But that's not theft.

      Copyright has only existed for a little over 100 years. Since that time, rightsholders have tried to argue that infringing on their copyright was theft, and deserving of similar punishment - all so that they could (they hope) profit more. They put their effort in already, now they feel they deserve money with no further effort (I can't help but draw back to your argument that people don't "deserve to view art", and note the irony). However the argument is just as false then as it is today. You are pushing a false narrative.

      Copyright infringement is not theft. The two concepts are distinctly different.

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