This kind of thread is why I duck out of casual maths discussions as a maths PhD.
The two sets have the same value, that is the value of both sets is unbounded. The set of 100s approaches that value 100 times quicker than the set of singles. Completely intuitive to someone who’s taken first year undergraduate logic and calculus courses. Completely unintuitive to the lay person, and 100 lay people can come up with 100 different wrong conclusions based on incorrect rationalisations of the statement.
I’ve made an effort to just not participate since back when people were arguing Rick and Morty infinite universe bollocks. “Infinite universes means there are an infinite number of identical universes” really boils my blood.
It’s why I just say “algebra” when asked what I do. Even explaining my research (representation theory) to a tangentially related person, like a mathematical physicist, just ends in tedious non-discussion based on an incorrect framing of my work through their lens of understanding.
There’s no problem at all with not understanding something, and I’d go so far as to say it’s virtuous to seek understanding. I’m talking about a certain phenomenon that is overrepresented in STEM discussions, of untrained people (who’ve probably took some internet IQ test) thinking they can hash out the subject as a function of raw brainpower. The ceiling for “natural talent” alone is actually incredibly low in any technical subject.
There’s nothing wrong with meming on a subject you’re not familiar with, in fact it’s often really funny. It’s the armchair experts in the thread trying to “umm actually…” the memer when their “experience” is a YouTube video at best.
I don't know why you see it as an error. It's the format of the meme. The guy in the middle is right, the guy on the left is wrong. That's just how this meme works. But the punchline in this meme format is the the guy on the right agrees with the wrong guy in an unexpected way. I'm with the guy on the right and no appeals to Schröder–Bernstein theorem is going to change my mind.
Yeah I sell cabinets and sometimes people are like “How much would a 24 inch cabinet cost?”
It could cost anything!
Then there are customers like “It’s the same if I just order them online right?” and I say “I wouldn’t recommend it. There’s a lot of little details to figure out and our systems can be error probe anyway…” then a month later I’m dealing with an angry customer who ordered their stuff online and is now mad at me for stuff going wrong.
If we only consider the monetary value, both "briefs" have the same value. Otherwise if we incorporate utility theory with a concave bounded utility curve over the monetary value and factor in other terms such as ease of payments, or weight (of the drawn money) then the "worth" of the 100 dollar bills brief could be greater for some people. For me, the 1 dollar bills brief has more value since I'm considering a potential tax evasion prosecution. It would be very suspicious if I go around paying everything with 100 dollar bills, whereas there's a limit on my daily spending with the other brief (how many dollars I can count out of the brief and then handle to the other person).
I admit the only time I've encountered the word utility as an algebraist is when I had to TA Linear Optimisation & Game Theory; it was in the sections of notes for the M level course that wasn't examinable for the Bachelors students so I didn't bother reading it. My knowledge caps out at equilibria of mixed strategies. It's interesting to see that there's some rigorous way of codifying user preference. I'll have to read about it at some point.
Correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't it that a simple statement(this is more worth than the other) can't be done, since it isn't stated how big the infinities are(as example if the 1$ infinity is 100 times bigger they are worth the same).
Sorry if you've seen this already, as your comment has just come through. The two sets are the same size, this is clear. This is because they're both countably infinite. There isn't such a thing as different sizes of countably infinite sets. Logic that works for finite sets ("For any finite a and b, there are twice as many integers between a and b as there are even integers between a and b, thus the set of integers is twice the set of even integers") simply does not work for infinite sets ("The set of all integers has the same size as the set of all even integers").
So no, it isn't due to lack of knowledge, as we know logically that the two sets have the exact same size.